Is stoning to death the punishment for adultery in Islam? If yes, then why? If no, then what's the actual punishment?

Is stoning to death the punishment for adultery in Islam? If yes, then why? If no, then what's the actual punishment?

The punishment of stoning finds absolutely NO support from the Quran (Islam's primary and ultimate authority), and hence cannot not be a God-ordained directive.

Allow me to make three points which I believe will better get my answer across.:

Point 1:

Let us bear in mind that Allah (God) has Himself referred to the Quran as a scripture "fully-detailed / explained in detail" (see: Quran 6:114) and "clear explanation of all things" (see: Quran 16:89; 20:133). For a book to be "fully-detailed / explained in detail" it would logically make sense, then, that said book would contain ALL the details and info so fundamental to the religion and for our guidance as well as the manner in which to perform them. So in the case of the Quran, when Allah refers to it is a book "fully-detailed / explained in detail", it logically makes sense, then, that it would contain ALL the details and info so fundamental to the religion and for our guidance as well as the manner in which to perform them. To argue otherwise is to argue that the Quran is only half-complete or only half-detailed and that Allah has either forgotten to give mention to the very details so fundamental to the religion and for our guidance or that He (Allah) has told a lie (Allah be free from such accusation) in proclaiming the Quran as a: "fully-detailed / explained in detail" scripture (6:114), and "clear explanation of all things" (16:89; 20:133).

With that in mind, it's pertinent to ask: Why, then, doesn't the punishment of stoning find any support from the 'fully detailed' scripture? There can only be one of two answer as to why this may be:
1] Because said punishment was never ordained by Allah to begin with, hence why it finds no support from the Quran. I favor this answer
2] Or, because Allah has uttered a lie (Allah be free from such accusation) in proclaiming the Quran to be a 'fully detailed' scripture (hence why such punishment finds no support from the Quran). I lean heavily against this answer.
Point 2:

Let us also bear in mind that Allah has Himself has referred to the Quran as a scripture "(full) of guidance/a guidance for mankind" (see: 2:2-3; 2:185) and one which "guides to a path which is most firm, right, straight and stable" (31:3; 17:9; 2:2-3; 17:9; 16:89). Similar to what was said above, for a book to guide it would follow that said book would contain ALL the info and details so fundamental to the religion and for our guidance and which would, therefore, lead to that guidance. So in the case of the Quran, when Allah refers to it as a book "(full) of guidance/a guidance for mankind" it would logically make sense, then, that it would contain ALL the rituals/details/info so fundamental to the religion and for our guidance. To argue otherwise is to argue that the Quran only contains "half-guidance" and that Allah, has therefore, told a lie (Allah be free from such); for how can a book (such as the Quran) on the one hand be referred to as a book "(full) of guidance / a guidance for mankind" and yet, on the other hand, omit the very rituals/details/info so fundamental to that/our guidance?

With that in mind, it's pertinent to ask: Why, then, doesn't the punishment of stoning find any support from the very scripture which is supposed to be '(full) of guidance / a guidance for mankind'? There can only be one of two answer as to why this may be:
1] Because said punishment was never ordained by Allah to begin with, hence why it finds no support from the Quran. I favor this answer
2] Or, because Allah has uttered a lie (Allah be free from such accusation) in proclaiming the Quran to be a scripture '(full) of guidance / a guidance for mankind' given that said punishment finds no support from the Quran. I lean heavily against this answer.
Point 3:

A scripture, such as the Quran, cannot claim to be 'fussilat' (explained in detail. See Quran 41:3; 11:1) and then not provide necessary details for human guidance as part of God ordained 'religion'.

With all the above in mind, it is worthwhile to ask:

Why doesn't the punishment of stoning those guilty of adultery and fornication finds absolutely no support from the Quran? Are we to assume that Allah has forgotten to alluded to it or that He ran out of words? If this punishment has any approval from Allah, then what logical sense does it make for Allah to not alluded to it (in the Quran), especially seeing as how He has alluded to, in detail, some of the other punishments instituted by Him, such as: the punishment for theft (See: Quran 5:38); the punishment for murder (See: Quran 2:178; 17:33); the punishment for manslaughter (See: Quran 4:92), etc.
If this punishment (i.e stoning to death for adultery and fornication) was condoned by Allah, then surely He would have given mention to it in the Quran, correct? Would it not be unjust of Allah to expect us (Muslims) to carry out a mandatory injunction and yet not communicate that directive to us via His scripture?
Furthermore, the Quran, unlike in western languages, does NOT differentiate between the concepts of "adultery" (i.e., sexual intercourse of a married man with a woman other than his wife, or of a married woman with a man other than her husband) and "fornication" (i.e., sexual intercourse between two unmarried persons). Therefore, the term 'zina' used in 24:2 refers both to fornication and adultery.

But lets assume, for arguments sake, that Allah has ordained two different punishments for fornication and adultery. Let's also assume that 24:2 refers only to fornication and not adultery (i.e. it's only the fornicators who are to be whipped 100 times). This, then, would raise an obvious question. That question being:

What logical sense does it make for Allah to, then, ordain a punishment (100 lashes) for fornication in the Quran (24:2 to be exact) yet give absolutely no mention (anywhere in the Quran) for the supposed punishment of stoning for adultery? Surly if the punishment of stoning was ordained by Allah then it would logical make sense that He would have alluded to it in that same exact verse (24:2) or any other place in the Quran, correct?
Many of my fellow Muslims like to argue that the reason there exist no Quranic verse in support of stoning is because a goat eat the page that verse was written in. [1]

This claim/reasoning is ridiculous and contradictory to the following Quanic verse in which Allah has sworn to protect the Quran from any such corruption or removal of verses:

"Indeed, it is We who sent down the reminder (Quran) and indeed, We will be its guardian." [Quran 15:9]

Are we (as Muslims) to believe that Allah was unable to keep a Goat from ripping pages out of his scripture?

Fellow Muslim proponents also like to make use of the Hadith of the prophet (pbuh) in support for the punishment of stoning. Yet is must be borne in mind that Any and all Ahadith (plural of hadith) must meet two very crucial criteria’s before accepting them as reliable. Those criteria's are as follow:

A Hadith must not, in any way, contradict the Quran. If it does, then that hadith must be rejected. For it is inconceivable that the prophet of Allah would have done (or said) anything contradictory to the Quran (the very scripture he was instructed to follow/uphold. SEE: Quran 46:9; 7:203; 6:155; 10:15; 33:2; 6:106; 6:50):
"….I only follow that which is revealed to me, and I am not but a clear warner." [Quran 46:9]
A Hadith must find CLEAR, EXPLICIT, UNAMBIGUOUS and UNEQUIVOCAL support from the Quran, prior to accepting them as reliable. This is because, as Muslims, we consider the Quran to be the primary and ultimate authority from God. And also because it is inconceivable that the prophet of Allah would have invented (or done) a practice in the name of Allah which fails to find support from the Quran, as shown in the following verse:
“And if the messenger were to invent any sayings in Our name, We should certainly seize him by his right hand, And We should certainly then cut off the artery of his heart. Nor could any of you withhold him (from Our wrath). But verily this is a Message for the God-fearing” [Quran 69:44-48]
"Am I, then, to look unto anyone but God for judgment when it is He who has bestowed upon you from on high this divine writ, clearly spelling out the truth?" [Quran 6:114]
The Hadith is simply a collection of prophet Muhammad's sayings and doings, and it (along with the Sunnah) is deriven from the Quran. But, sense the prophet (in his daily doings) would never have done (or said) anything contradictory of/to the general message of the Quran, therefore any hadith which contradicts the Quran (as mentioned above) must be rejected

Hence it (the Quran), has the final and absolute verdict to distinguish truth from falsehood.

With that said, any and all Ahadith which support the punishment of stoning must be outright reject, for reasons explained above.

With all of the above in mind: the burden lays solely on those who claim this punishment to be part of Islam and ordained by Allah to support their argument solely from the Quran (the primary and ultimate authority in Islam); as any and all religious assertions, theological standpoints, doctrine/s, or rituals must find clear, unequivocal support from it (the Quran); as it is the Quran (as alluded to above) which is the primary and ultimate authority from God.

So, to conclude, the only punishment which the Quran supports for adultery and fornication is that of a hundred lashes, nothing more nothing less:

"AS FOR the adulteress/fornicatress (Arabic: zāniyatu) and the adulterer/fornicator (Arabic: zānī) flog each of them with a hundred stripes, and let not compassion with them keep you from [carrying out] this law of God, if you [truly] believe in God and the Last Day; and let a group of the believers witness their chastisement." [Quran 24:2]

The term zina, in the above verse, signifies voluntary sexual intercourse between a man and a woman not married to one another, irrespective of whether one or both of them are married to other persons or not: hence, it does not - in contrast with the usage prevalent in most Western languages - differentiate between the concepts of "adultery" (i.e., sexual intercourse of a married man with a woman other than his wife, or of a married woman with a man other than her husband) and "fornication" (i.e., sexual intercourse between two unmarried persons); the Qur'an does not differentiate between married or unmarried (fornication or adultery).[2]